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Free MCAT Practice Questions with Explanations

Use 36 science and behavioral-science questions plus a complete six-question CARS passage to locate gaps in knowledge and reasoning. Every item includes an answer explanation and analysis of the alternatives.

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Isotopes and neutron countsChemical / Physical · easy
Question 1 · easy · Isotopes and neutron counts
Two neutral atoms of the same element have mass numbers 20 and 22. Their atomic number is 10. How do their neutron counts compare?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. Neutrons equal mass number minus atomic number: 10 and 12. The atomic number stays 10 because both are the same element.

  • A. The heavier isotope has more, not fewer, neutrons.
  • B. Only the mass-20 isotope has ten neutrons.
  • C. Different proton counts would make them different elements.
  • D. The difference in mass number is a neutron-count difference.

Takeaway: Isotopes share proton count and differ in neutron count.

Concept references: Radioactive Decay

Centripetal accelerationChemical / Physical · easy
Question 2 · easy · Centripetal acceleration
A small sample rotates uniformly in a centrifuge at a fixed radius. If its angular speed doubles, how does the magnitude of its centripetal acceleration change?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. Centripetal acceleration is a = ω²r. With r fixed, doubling ω multiplies a by four.

  • A. Acceleration increases rather than decreases.
  • B. Constant speed in a circle still requires acceleration.
  • C. This assumes a linear dependence on angular speed.
  • D. The angular speed is squared.

Takeaway: Uniform circular motion has acceleration directed toward the center.

Concept references: Centripetal Acceleration

Surface tension and capillary riseChemical / Physical · medium
Question 3 · medium · Surface tension and capillary rise
Water rises in a clean narrow glass tube. If the tube radius decreases while surface tension, contact angle, density, and gravity remain fixed, what happens to the equilibrium rise height?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. Capillary rise satisfies h = 2γ cosθ/(ρgr). With the other factors fixed and water wetting the glass, a smaller radius produces a greater rise.

  • A. Narrowing a wetting capillary does not remove capillary action.
  • B. This reverses the radius dependence.
  • C. Radius is part of the force balance.
  • D. Height is inversely proportional to radius.

Takeaway: Surface tension can support a taller column in a narrower wetting capillary.

Concept references: Cohesion and Adhesion in Liquids: Surface Tension and Capillary Action

Electrical heatingChemical / Physical · easy
Question 4 · easy · Electrical heating
A resistor carries a steady current of 0.20 A while the potential difference across it is 10 V. How much electrical energy is dissipated in 5 s?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Power is IV = 0.20 × 10 = 2 W; energy is Pt = 2 × 5 = 10 J.

  • A. This is power in watts, not energy in joules.
  • B. This uses both current and elapsed time.
  • C. This omits the current factor.
  • D. This incorrectly divides voltage by current and treats resistance as power.

Takeaway: Electrical energy dissipated equals IVt under steady conditions.

Concept references: Circuits and DC Instruments: Section Summary

Photon energy and wavelengthChemical / Physical · easy
Question 5 · easy · Photon energy and wavelength
Two photons travel in vacuum. Photon X has twice the wavelength of Photon Y. What is the ratio E_X/E_Y?
Answer and explanation

Answer A. Photon energy E = hc/λ is inversely proportional to wavelength, so doubling wavelength halves energy.

  • A. This follows the inverse relationship.
  • B. Different wavelengths imply different photon energies in vacuum.
  • C. This incorrectly makes energy proportional to wavelength.
  • D. This adds an unsupported squared dependence.

Takeaway: Longer wavelength means lower photon energy.

Concept references: Electromagnetic Energy

Electronegativity trendChemical / Physical · easy
Question 6 · easy · Electronegativity trend
Which atom most strongly attracts shared electrons in a typical covalent bond?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. Among these second-period nonmetals, electronegativity increases from carbon through fluorine. Fluorine most strongly attracts shared electrons.

  • A. Carbon lies farther left and has lower electronegativity.
  • B. Nitrogen is more electronegative than carbon but less than fluorine.
  • C. Oxygen is highly electronegative but below fluorine.
  • D. Fluorine has the highest electronegativity of these atoms.

Takeaway: Electronegativity generally increases across a period toward fluorine.

Concept references: Covalent Bonding

Conjugate acid–base pairsChemical / Physical · easy
Question 7 · easy · Conjugate acid–base pairs
Which pair differs by exactly one proton and therefore forms a conjugate acid–base pair?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Removing one H⁺ from H₂PO₄⁻ gives HPO₄²⁻; the charge decreases by one unit.

  • A. These have different elemental compositions.
  • B. These differ in oxygen content and are not conjugates.
  • C. These differ by one proton only.
  • D. These differ by three protons.

Takeaway: A conjugate pair differs by one H⁺.

Concept references: Brønsted–Lowry Acids and Bases

Geometric isomerismChemical / Physical · medium
Question 8 · medium · Geometric isomerism
Which structural feature permits distinct cis and trans configurations around a carbon–carbon double bond?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Restricted double-bond rotation allows distinct arrangements only when each carbon has two different substituents.

  • A. Free rotation would interconvert the arrangements without preserving them.
  • B. Identical groups on one carbon eliminate the distinct geometric alternatives.
  • C. This makes alternative substituent arrangements distinguishable.
  • D. Formal charge is not required.

Takeaway: Check substituent identity on both alkene carbons before assigning geometric isomers.

Concept references: Cis–Trans Isomerism in Alkenes

TLC retention factorChemical / Physical · easy
Question 9 · easy · TLC retention factor
On a TLC plate, a compound travels 3 cm from the origin while the solvent front travels 6 cm. What is its retention factor Rf?
Answer and explanation

Answer A. Rf is compound distance divided by solvent-front distance: 3/6 = 0.50.

  • A. This is the specified dimensionless distance ratio.
  • B. This inverts the ratio.
  • C. This uses the compound distance without normalization.
  • D. Adding distances does not define retention factor.

Takeaway: A TLC retention factor normalizes migration to the solvent front.

Concept references: Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC) — Organic Chemistry Lab Techniques (Nichols)

A carriage for moving tissue samplesChemical / Physical · easy
Question 10 · easy · Force balance during horizontal transport
Back to passage
What is the magnitude of the resistive force during the constant-speed interval?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Constant velocity means zero acceleration. Newton’s second law therefore requires zero net horizontal force: the 12 N cable tension is balanced by a 12 N resistive force.

  • A. Zero resistance would leave a nonzero net force and accelerate the carriage.
  • B. Dividing tension by mass gives acceleration units, not the resisting force.
  • C. This balances the measured cable tension.
  • D. The approximate weight is vertical and does not determine horizontal resistance here.

Takeaway: Motion at constant velocity requires balanced forces, even when a motor is pulling.

Concept references: Newton’s Second Law of Motion: Concept of a System

Pressure ports in a liquid columnChemical / Physical · easy
Question 11 · easy · Hydrostatic pressure differences
Back to passage
How much greater is the pressure at Port L than at Port U?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. The depth difference is 0.20 m. Thus ΔP = ρgΔh = (1000)(10)(0.20) = 2000 Pa. The common atmospheric contribution cancels.

  • A. This uses only the upper port depth.
  • B. This uses the difference between port depths.
  • C. This uses only the lower port depth.
  • D. This represents an approximate atmospheric pressure, which cancels from the difference.

Takeaway: For a stationary uniform liquid, a pressure difference depends on vertical separation.

Concept references: Variation of Pressure with Depth in a Fluid

A membrane represented by a capacitorChemical / Physical · easy
Question 12 · easy · Charge storage across a membrane model
Back to passage
What is the magnitude of the stored charge on either facing surface?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Q = CV = (2 × 10⁻⁹ F)(50 × 10⁻³ V) = 1 × 10⁻¹⁰ C.

  • A. Net charge on both surfaces together is zero, but each surface stores nonzero charge.
  • B. This correctly converts nanofarads and millivolts.
  • C. This divides capacitance by voltage instead of multiplying.
  • D. This treats 50 mV as 50 V.

Takeaway: Capacitance relates charge magnitude on one surface to the voltage difference.

Concept references: Capacitors and Dielectrics

CodominanceBiological / Biochemical · easy
Question 13 · easy · Codominance
At a hypothetical antigen locus, an AB heterozygote displays both antigen A and antigen B on the same cells, with neither antigen converted into an intermediate form. What inheritance pattern does this illustrate?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Both alleles’ products are separately expressed in the heterozygote, which is codominance.

  • A. The passage specifies two recognizable antigens rather than an intermediate phenotype.
  • B. Both allele-associated phenotypes are expressed in the heterozygote.
  • C. Complete dominance of A would mask the B phenotype.
  • D. Complete dominance of B would mask the A phenotype.

Takeaway: Codominance preserves expression of both allele-associated traits.

Concept references: 12.2 Characteristics and Traits — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Metabolic compartmentationBiological / Biochemical · easy
Question 14 · easy · Metabolic compartmentation
Where does glycolysis occur in a typical human cell?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol and does not require the presence of mitochondria.

  • A. The nucleolus is associated with ribosome biogenesis.
  • B. The glycolytic enzyme sequence operates in the cytosol.
  • C. The intermembrane space participates in the proton gradient, not the location of glycolysis.
  • D. Lysosomes specialize in acidic degradation rather than the glycolytic sequence.

Takeaway: Cellular energy pathways occupy distinct compartments.

Concept references: 7.2 Glycolysis — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Secretory pathway topologyBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 15 · medium · Secretory pathway topology
A carbohydrate chain is attached to the lumen-facing domain of a membrane protein in the endoplasmic reticulum. After ordinary vesicular delivery to the plasma membrane, where does that domain face?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. Vesicular budding and fusion preserve sidedness. A domain facing the ER and vesicle lumen becomes exposed outside the cell when the vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane.

  • A. Membrane topology is preserved; the lumen-facing domain does not flip to the cytosolic side.
  • B. The pathway described does not target the mitochondrial matrix.
  • C. Delivery to the plasma membrane does not place the domain in the nucleus.
  • D. The lumenal face of the secretory pathway becomes extracellular upon vesicle fusion.

Takeaway: Secretory-pathway lumen is topologically continuous with the future extracellular face.

Concept references: 4.4 The Endomembrane System and Proteins — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Membrane fluidityBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 16 · medium · Membrane fluidity
At the same temperature and chain length, which phospholipid change generally increases bilayer fluidity?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Cis unsaturation bends fatty-acyl chains and reduces efficient packing, generally increasing fluidity relative to saturated chains of the same length.

  • A. Trans double bonds permit straighter, more regular tail packing than cis double bonds and generally reduce fluidity under the matched conditions.
  • B. Reducing cis unsaturation permits more regular tail packing and generally reduces fluidity when chain length and temperature are matched.
  • C. Cis double bonds introduce bends that reduce tight packing.
  • D. Straight saturated chains generally pack more tightly under the stated comparison.

Takeaway: Compare membrane composition while holding temperature and chain length constant.

Concept references: 5.1 Components and Structure — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Viral dependence on host cellsBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 17 · medium · Viral dependence on host cells
Which requirement most directly prevents a typical virus from producing new proteins in a cell-free solution containing only salts and energy substrates?
Answer and explanation

Answer A. Energy and salts alone do not supply ribosomes, transfer RNAs, and the full translation system. Typical viruses rely on host machinery for protein production.

  • A. Viruses depend on host ribosomes and associated machinery for protein synthesis.
  • B. A nucleus is not a universal requirement for viral protein synthesis; host ribosomes translate viral messages in the cytoplasm.
  • C. New capsid assembly generally requires proteins made by prior translation; an assembled capsid is not the translation machinery missing from this solution.
  • D. Viral genomes encode proteins, but sequence information alone cannot carry out translation without the required cellular machinery.

Takeaway: A genome and energy supply are insufficient without the machinery needed to express the genome.

Concept references: 21.1 Viral Evolution, Morphology, and Classification — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Independent assortmentBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 18 · medium · Independent assortment
Which meiotic event provides the direct basis for independent assortment of genes on different chromosome pairs?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. Independent orientation of homolog pairs at metaphase I allows the maternal or paternal member of each pair to segregate independently of other pairs.

  • A. A fixed common orientation would prevent independent assortment.
  • B. DNA replication occurs in S phase and does not establish independent pair orientation.
  • C. Fertilization does not produce assortment by separating DNA strands.
  • D. Each pair can orient independently, producing different maternal–paternal chromosome combinations.

Takeaway: Independent assortment and crossing over are distinct sources of genetic variation.

Concept references: 11.1 The Process of Meiosis — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Molecular detection methodsBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 19 · medium · Molecular detection methods
Which method most directly measures the abundance of a specific protein in a complex lysate after separation by molecular size?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Western blotting combines protein separation with antibody detection of a selected protein. Appropriate loading controls are needed for quantitative comparisons.

  • A. Promoter sequence does not directly measure protein abundance.
  • B. A Western blot detects an antibody-recognized protein after electrophoretic separation.
  • C. A Southern blot detects DNA sequences.
  • D. A Northern blot detects RNA rather than the protein product.

Takeaway: Choose the assay for the molecular species being measured.

Concept references: 17.1 Biotechnology — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Peptide structureBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 20 · medium · Peptide structure
Why does a peptide bond restrict rotation between the carbonyl carbon and amide nitrogen?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. Resonance delocalizes the nitrogen lone pair toward the carbonyl, giving the C–N linkage partial double-bond character and restricting rotation.

  • A. The peptide C–N bond is not a carbon–carbon bond and has resonance character.
  • B. The backbone connection is covalent, not merely a hydrogen bond.
  • C. Peptide bonds are amides rather than phosphodiesters.
  • D. Electron delocalization across the amide group favors a planar arrangement and restricts rotation.

Takeaway: Peptide-backbone flexibility mainly comes from bonds adjacent to the planar peptide bond.

Concept references: The nature of the peptide bond — EMBL-EBI training

Hemoglobin and the Bohr effectBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 21 · medium · Hemoglobin and the Bohr effect
At a fixed oxygen partial pressure, increased carbon dioxide and decreased pH in an active tissue generally have what effect on hemoglobin?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Higher carbon dioxide and lower pH favor hemoglobin states with lower oxygen affinity, helping release oxygen where metabolism is active.

  • A. The Bohr effect changes affinity and occupancy at a given oxygen pressure; it does not add oxygen-binding sites.
  • B. Physiological carbon dioxide and pH effects shift affinity rather than remove functional heme-binding sites.
  • C. The Bohr effect links higher carbon dioxide and lower pH to reduced oxygen affinity.
  • D. That direction is opposite the usual tissue Bohr response.

Takeaway: Local tissue chemistry can tune oxygen delivery at the same oxygen partial pressure.

Concept references: 22.5 Transport of Gases — Anatomy and Physiology 2e, OpenStax

Tracing the origin of a contractile tissueBiological / Biochemical · easy
Question 22 · easy · Germ layer derivatives
Back to passage
Which germ layer was most likely labeled?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. The descendants include skeletal muscle and axial supporting tissues, a pattern characteristic of mesodermal derivatives.

  • A. Surface ectoderm produces epidermis rather than the specified muscle and axial support tissues.
  • B. Skeletal muscle and many axial connective tissues derive from mesoderm.
  • C. Endoderm contributes to the gut epithelial lining, which is not labeled here.
  • D. Trophoblast is an extraembryonic lineage, not one of the three body germ layers.

Takeaway: Embryonic origin follows lineage relationships rather than adult proximity.

Concept references: 43.7 Organogenesis and Vertebrate Axis Formation — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Estimating an unseen carrier populationBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 23 · medium · Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium
Back to passage
What percentage of the entire population is expected to be heterozygous?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Since q² = 0.04, q = 0.2. Then p = 0.8, and 2pq = 2(0.8)(0.2) = 0.32, or 32%.

  • A. Four percent is the affected homozygous recessive frequency.
  • B. Sixteen percent is pq without accounting for both allele arrangements.
  • C. q = 0.2 and p = 0.8, so 2pq = 0.32.
  • D. Forty percent uses 2q and omits the factor p.

Takeaway: A recessive phenotype frequency gives q², not q.

Concept references: 19.1 Population Evolution — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Cargo reaches an organelle but remains undigestedBiological / Biochemical · medium
Question 24 · medium · Lysosomal acidification
Back to passage
What best explains the accumulation of intact cargo?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Pump inhibition raises lumenal pH. The acid hydrolases remain present but operate less effectively outside their preferred environment, so delivered cargo persists.

  • A. The passage states that initial uptake and delivery remain normal.
  • B. Moving away from the specified pH optimum reduces, rather than improves, the predicted activity.
  • C. The pump maintains the pH required for efficient hydrolase action.
  • D. The pump transports protons; hydrolases perform cargo digestion.

Takeaway: An organelle’s chemical conditions can matter as much as the enzymes it contains.

Concept references: 4.4 The Endomembrane System and Proteins — Biology 2e, OpenStax

Nonverbal communicationPsychological / Social · easy
Question 25 · easy · Nonverbal communication
During a conversation, a listener repeatedly turns toward the speaker and maintains an open posture without speaking. These behaviors are most directly examples of which type of communication?
Answer and explanation

Answer A. Orientation and posture can convey social information without spoken words, making them nonverbal communication.

  • A. The listener communicates through body position without producing words.
  • B. Pitch and speaking rate are vocal features, but the listener is not speaking.
  • C. No written symbols are produced in the described exchange.
  • D. The described signals do not contain spoken statements or their semantic content.

Takeaway: Posture, expression, and orientation can carry meaning alongside words.

Concept references: Types of Communication

Material and nonmaterial culturePsychological / Social · easy
Question 26 · easy · Material and nonmaterial culture
Which pairing correctly distinguishes material from nonmaterial culture?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Material culture includes physical objects; nonmaterial culture includes meanings, values, and norms.

  • A. A greeting norm is nonmaterial, whereas a building is material; this reverses the requested order.
  • B. A belief is nonmaterial and a tool is material, reversing the requested order.
  • C. The garment is a physical object, while its shared meaning is nonmaterial culture.
  • D. A value is nonmaterial and a woven garment is material, reversing the requested order.

Takeaway: Objects and the meanings assigned to them are distinct cultural components.

Concept references: OpenStax: What Is Culture?

Dependency ratioPsychological / Social · medium
Question 27 · medium · Dependency ratio
Using the conventional age-based demographic definition, which quantity is represented by a total dependency ratio?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. The conventional age-based dependency ratio compares younger and older age groups with the working-age group; it does not directly measure actual employment or financial dependence.

  • A. Migration relative to births does not define an age-based dependency ratio.
  • B. Deaths relative to births compares demographic events rather than dependent-age and working-age populations.
  • C. The conventional total dependency ratio compares the combined younger and older age groups with the population aged 15–64; it may be expressed per 100 people in that denominator.
  • D. Employment status is distinct from the age-based definition; the conventional ratio does not count only unemployed and employed adults.

Takeaway: Age-based dependency ratios use age categories, not each person’s actual economic dependence.

Concept references: World Bank: Age dependency ratio definition

Income versus wealthPsychological / Social · easy
Question 28 · easy · Income versus wealth
Which measure most directly represents household wealth rather than income?
Answer and explanation

Answer A. Wealth is a stock of net assets at a point in time. Income is a flow received over an interval.

  • A. Assets minus liabilities gives net wealth.
  • B. Monthly wages are an income flow.
  • C. Interest received over a year is income.
  • D. A contract payment is a flow of income rather than total accumulated net assets.

Takeaway: Distinguish accumulated net assets from money received over time.

Concept references: What Is Social Stratification?

Sensation versus perceptionPsychological / Social · easy
Question 29 · easy · Sensation versus perception
Which event is most directly an example of sensory transduction?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Transduction converts physical stimulus energy into neural signaling. Recognition and interpretation occur at later processing levels.

  • A. Prediction from context is top-down processing.
  • B. This is a conversion from light to a biological signal.
  • C. Face recognition is a perceptual interpretation.
  • D. Sarcasm depends on interpretation of meaning and context.

Takeaway: Transduction connects physical stimulation to nervous-system activity.

Concept references: Sensation versus Perception

Procedural memoryPsychological / Social · easy
Question 30 · easy · Procedural memory
After years without practice, a person can still perform the coordinated movements needed to ride a bicycle, despite difficulty verbally describing each movement. Which memory system is most directly illustrated?
Answer and explanation

Answer A. A learned motor skill can be expressed without conscious recall of each action, illustrating procedural memory.

  • A. This supports performance of practiced skills.
  • B. Episodic memory concerns personally experienced events.
  • C. Echoic memory is a brief auditory store.
  • D. Prospective memory concerns remembering to carry out a future intention.

Takeaway: Knowing how to perform a skill differs from consciously recalling an event.

Concept references: How Memory Functions

Sympathetic activationPsychological / Social · easy
Question 31 · easy · Sympathetic activation
Which response is most consistent with acute sympathetic nervous-system activation?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Sympathetic activation commonly increases heart rate as part of preparing the body for an immediate demand.

  • A. Typical acute sympathetic activation reduces digestive activity; increased motility is more associated with parasympathetic activity.
  • B. An increased heart rate supports rapid cardiovascular mobilization during an acute demand.
  • C. Typical sympathetic activation dilates the pupils, while constriction is associated with parasympathetic activity.
  • D. Parasympathetic activity promotes bladder-wall contraction for voiding; sympathetic activity favors storage.

Takeaway: Acute sympathetic activity mobilizes physiological resources.

Concept references: Parts of the Nervous System

ConscientiousnessPsychological / Social · easy
Question 32 · easy · Conscientiousness
A personality description emphasizes organization, dependability, and following through on planned tasks. Which Big Five trait is most directly represented?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. Organization and dependability are central features of conscientiousness in the Big Five framework.

  • A. Extraversion emphasizes sociability and assertiveness.
  • B. Openness emphasizes curiosity and receptiveness to ideas and experiences.
  • C. Neuroticism concerns proneness to negative emotional states.
  • D. This is the trait most closely tied to reliable goal-directed conduct.

Takeaway: Match the described behavioral pattern to the trait’s defining content.

Concept references: Trait Theorists

ObediencePsychological / Social · easy
Question 33 · easy · Obedience
A participant continues a permitted but tedious task after an experimenter in charge directly instructs them to continue. Which social process is most specifically defined by responding to an authority’s direct command?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. Obedience refers to complying with a direct instruction from a perceived authority.

  • A. Social facilitation concerns how others’ presence affects performance.
  • B. Polarization concerns more extreme group attitudes after discussion.
  • C. The command comes from an authority figure.
  • D. Conformity need not involve a direct command from authority.

Takeaway: Identify whether an explicit authority command is present.

Concept references: Conformity, Compliance, and Obedience

A background odor in a simulated workspacePsychological / Social · easy
Question 34 · easy · Sensory adaptation
Back to passage
Which concept best describes the declining awareness?
Answer and explanation

Answer A. Stimulus concentration stays constant while perceived salience declines over sustained exposure. That pattern is consistent with sensory adaptation.

  • A. This describes reduced responsiveness to a continuing stimulus.
  • B. No stimulus–outcome pairing is described.
  • C. No consequence is added to reduce an operant behavior.
  • D. The study does not involve new learning disrupting an older memory.

Takeaway: Check whether a stimulus changed before explaining a change in its perceived intensity.

Concept references: Sensation versus Perception

Keeping and rearranging appointment codesPsychological / Social · medium
Question 35 · medium · Working memory and active manipulation
Back to passage
Which function is most directly increased by the alphabetizing requirement?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Alphabetizing requires holding the codes while changing their order, a central working-memory operation beyond immediate repetition.

  • A. Iconic memory briefly preserves sensory information; it does not alphabetize an encoded sequence.
  • B. Alphabetizing requires maintaining the letters while actively rearranging their order.
  • C. Procedural memory supports learned skills and habits, not the temporary rearrangement of a new letter sequence.
  • D. The letters have already been identified, and alphabetizing adds an ordering demand rather than a word-meaning retrieval demand.

Takeaway: Working memory supports keeping information available while operating on it.

Concept references: How Memory Functions

Two interpretations of the same presentationPsychological / Social · medium
Question 36 · medium · Primary appraisal of a stressor
Back to passage
Which process is most directly illustrated?
Answer and explanation

Answer A. Classifying an event as threatening or challenging concerns its significance for well-being, which is primary appraisal. Evaluating coping resources would be secondary appraisal.

  • A. The students are initially evaluating the event’s significance for their well-being, including whether it presents a threat or a challenge.
  • B. The reports concern what the event means, not whether time, skills, or support are sufficient to manage it.
  • C. The accounts are collected before performance and feedback, so the contrast is not a revised appraisal based on the outcome.
  • D. The students describe the event without changing its requirements; a coping action has not yet been observed.

Takeaway: Appraisal concerns how a person interprets a demand, not only the demand’s objective features.

Concept references: What Is Stress?

The Museum of Familiar ThingsCARS · 6 questions
Question 37 · easy · The Museum of Familiar Things
Back to passage
Which statement best expresses the central claim of the passage?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. The stool example distinguishes recognizing an object from understanding its social relationships. The proposed display makes those relationships visible through selected evidence, while the conclusion describes richer recognition rather than mystery.

  • A. The author presents conflicting memories as useful evidence and expressly rejects arbitrary storytelling.
  • B. The first paragraph treats effortless recognition as the problem that interpretation must address.
  • C. Famous ownership is criticized for making ordinary objects exceptional and distracting from domestic life.
  • D. The opening problem, proposed display, and conclusion all support this account of interpretation.

Takeaway: A central-claim answer should connect the opening problem with the proposed response and conclusion.

Concept references: Critical Analysis and Reasoning Skills Section - Skill 1: Foundations of Comprehension

Question 38 · medium · Reasoning within the text
Back to passage
Why does the author contrast a label about timber with one about who sat on the stool?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. Paragraph 3 calls both accounts potentially valid but objects to treating either as complete. The contrast illustrates selective interpretation rather than a hierarchy of subjects.

  • A. Neither account is said to be false.
  • B. Both select a perspective from the object’s many relationships.
  • C. The author does not rank these historical subjects.
  • D. The passage proposes better contextual labels, not their removal.
Question 39 · easy · Foundations of comprehension
Back to passage
The author distinguishes a partial interpretation from an arbitrary one primarily by whether the interpretation:
Answer and explanation

Answer A. Paragraph 4 explicitly says an arbitrary interpretation ignores what can be known, whereas all interpretations are partial because they select. Evidence is the relevant constraint.

  • A. This preserves the author’s distinction between selection and unsupported invention.
  • B. The author says complete restoration of relationships is impossible.
  • C. Popularity is not the stated standard.
  • D. Mystery is criticized as potentially distracting.
Question 40 · medium · Reasoning beyond the text
Back to passage
Which new exhibit would best implement the author’s recommendations?
Answer and explanation

Answer C. The proposed exhibit connects the object to documented social relationships and acknowledges evidentiary limits, matching the room diagram, invoice, and conflicting recollections.

  • A. Auction value does not reveal the ordinary social relationships emphasized here.
  • B. The passage explicitly rejects voting as a way to resolve historical uncertainty.
  • C. This makes context visible without pretending that the evidence is complete.
  • D. Acknowledged limits do not license fabricated evidence.
Question 41 · medium · Reasoning within the text
Back to passage
What role does the fourth paragraph play in the argument?
Answer and explanation

Answer B. After presenting interpretation as selective, the author limits that claim: curators need not present endless views, and evidence still constrains interpretation. This prevents a relativist reading.

  • A. The author retains the claim that all accounts select.
  • B. The paragraph explicitly rejects the idea that any story is as defensible as another.
  • C. Conflicting memories are used productively in the following paragraph.
  • D. The comparison with jewels appears in the opening, not here.
Question 42 · hard · Reasoning beyond the text
Back to passage
A curator claims that attaching a famous owner’s name always makes an ordinary object more informative. Which finding would most weaken that claim in the terms of the passage?
Answer and explanation

Answer D. The passage criticizes exceptional ownership when it distracts from the ordinary relationships the exhibit should reveal. The finding describes that specific failure despite increased attention.

  • A. Longer attention does not establish what visitors understand.
  • B. Accuracy of attribution does not show that the exhibit explains ordinary life.
  • C. Insurance cost does not test the author’s educational criterion.
  • D. This is precisely the distraction criticized in the opening paragraph.
42 questionsAll 4 MCAT sectionsAnswers + worked explanations

Test Ninjas · Content checked October 23, 2026

Separate a content gap from a reasoning gap

Start with a section filter and complete a small block before reviewing. On science questions, identify the tested concept and the evidence needed to apply it: an equation, experimental condition, biological mechanism or relationship in the passage. On CARS, use the author’s argument instead of outside knowledge.

There are 12 questions each in Chemical/Physical, Biological/Biochemical and Psychological/Social Foundations. Each of those groups includes nine discrete items and three short passage-based items. CARS adds one longer passage with six linked questions. This mix emphasizes targeted review and is deliberately not weighted like a full MCAT.

After checking an answer, read why each distractor fails. A correct guess may conceal the same weakness as a wrong answer, so save uncertain items. The concept references in science explanations are useful when you need to rebuild the underlying idea before trying again.

This is a focused practice bank, not a full-length exam or a score predictor. The science mix is discrete-heavy, and the CARS passage also appears in the dedicated CARS collection. Use official full-length material for representative endurance and pacing practice.

What the four sections contribute

Chemical and Physical Foundations — 12 questions

Practice force balance, pressure, flow, solutions, acids and bases, functional groups and molecular properties. Translate the physical situation into a relationship before substituting numbers. A quantity’s units can eliminate an otherwise tempting answer.

Biological and Biochemical Foundations — 12 questions

Work with proteins, enzyme activity, membranes, molecular genetics and biological regulation. Distinguish a mechanism from an observation and keep track of what an experimental change can actually establish.

Psychological and Social Foundations — 12 questions

Apply concepts in learning, memory, perception, development, social processes and research reasoning. Definitions are a starting point; the answer must match the mechanism or scenario described.

Critical Analysis and Reasoning Skills — 6 questions

Read one original humanities passage about museum interpretation. Answer questions about the central claim, supporting examples, distinctions and hypothetical applications. The dedicated CARS page adds three more complete passage sets.

Turn a missed question into a better next attempt

  1. Before revealing the answer, record why your chosen option works. If you guessed, save the question even if your guess was correct.
  2. Classify the error: missing knowledge, misread condition, wrong setup, arithmetic, or an unsupported inference. Fixing the cause matters more than memorizing a letter.
  3. Use the worked explanation to reconstruct the solution without looking at the choices. Explain why your original answer fails.
  4. Revisit saved questions in a later session. Reset only after recording your first attempt; immediate recognition is not the same as independent mastery.

Why an attractive MCAT answer can still be wrong

Substituting a remembered association for the mechanism

Two terms may commonly appear together without answering the question. Trace the causal steps in the scenario and check whether the proposed answer changes the quantity or process being asked about.

Solving for the wrong physical quantity

A force divided by mass gives acceleration, not a second force. Write the target quantity and units first; this often catches a plausible-looking calculation before it becomes a selected answer.

Letting outside knowledge override a CARS passage

Evaluate the author’s position on its own terms. An answer may be defensible in another essay but unsupported here. Locate the passage language that makes your choice stronger than the alternatives.

Frequently asked questions

Where do these MCAT practice questions come from?

The science items and original CARS passage come from Test Ninjas’ own MCAT question bank. The CARS set adds five newly written follow-up questions to the passage’s original item. These are not AAMC questions.

Does this set match the distribution of the real MCAT?

No. It is a targeted review collection with more discrete science questions than a representative exam. It samples all four sections but does not reproduce the full content blueprint or test-day workload.

Can this bank estimate my MCAT score?

No. Scaled scores require calibrated test forms. Use the checked-answer breakdown to locate weaknesses; do not convert this bank’s accuracy to the 472–528 scale.

Should I use a calculator?

Practice the science calculations without a calculator to develop estimation and unit reasoning for the MCAT. Write intermediate quantities on scratch paper and check the explanation after committing to an answer.

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